Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 02.07.2025 06:41

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

There's no rule.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

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Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Beautiful European women were killed by inquisition but Russia was not Catholic. Is this the reason for a drastic difference explaining why Russian women are the prettiest?

You'll usually find your answer there.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Why are so many people anti-Trump? People didn't like Obama either, but he was the president, so people didn't do this. What makes Trump different?

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.